Hello BPers, long time reader, first time post-er :)
We are trying to refine our analysis and are getting a little confused.
Example:
Purchase Price $80,000
Rehab $40,000 (not seeing bids this low in reality...)
ARV $200,000
Refi 70% LTV = $140,000 pulled out
Assume 6% Closing Costs on the Refi (does this apply to the 140K Loan amount or the 200K property value?)
Assuming this applies to loan amount, closing costs = $8,400
140,000 loan amount - 8,400 closing costs = $131,600 pulled out
Pay back self: 131,600 - 80,000 - 40,000 = $11,600 "extra" to invest
^^^ Open to any/all feedback on the above
I know the 1% rule should be used simply as a quick way to filter whether a property is worth analyzing
In this example, we would want it to apply to the ARV, right? So we'd want to make sure it can rent for $2,000...
I can't see how it could apply to purchase price because that would mean only $800
Thank you in advance for your help!