subject to assignment risk

[John Horner]

I have a property in contract where the owner is distressed and will do anything to get out. It needs a little work so a lease option is not going well, but I was contacted today by an investor who wants the property subject to. I believe the owner is open to this.

Should I assign a subject to contract the same way I would any other wholesale? I know Sean Terry always says he only keeps sub2's for himself and never assigns them, but wondering if there was a reason or additional risk there that I am not seeing.

I don't want to get caught in the middle of a due on sale clause or something if it goes poorly :)

I know there are many forums on sub's, but none address this specifically.