Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Tax, SDIRAs & Cost Segregation
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated about 5 years ago,

User Stats

13
Posts
7
Votes
Justin Long
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Charlotte, NC
7
Votes |
13
Posts

Depreciation as it relates to cost basis

Justin Long
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Charlotte, NC
Posted

I may be thinking about this way to hard. However, I am also a newbie to REI and the tax implications therein. My scenario is simple: Single family home purchased by me and in my name, mortgaged property, and rented out.

Once I have determined total cost basis in the property (purchase price + additional costs to close, etc.), I can then separate the land from the amount.  Then I apply straight line depreciation (structure basis/27.5) for the tax year.  My question is, does my basis for the following tax year decrease by the deduction amount I took in the previous year?  I wouldn't think so, as this would be by definition, NOT straight line.  However, after reading IRS publication 946, it seems unclear, as it states under the Adjusted Basis section on page 12;
"Basis adjustment for depreciation allowed or allowable. You must reduce the basis of property by the depreciation allowed or allowable, whichever is greater. Depreciation allowed is depreciation you actually deducted (from which you received a tax benefit). Depreciation allowable is depreciation you are entitled to deduct."

Am I reading this incorrectly?  Please help!  

Loading replies...