Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Tax, SDIRAs & Cost Segregation
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 6 years ago, 04/15/2018

User Stats

1,493
Posts
268
Votes
George P.
  • Real Estate Investor
  • Baltimore, MD
268
Votes |
1,493
Posts

REI fudged the tax basis calculations

George P.
  • Real Estate Investor
  • Baltimore, MD
Posted

ran into a REI investor yesterday and we got to talking about his rental properties (that he apparently sold).

he suggested that the last one he sold, was originally converted from a primary residence.

his calculation of the tax basis use the FMV of the property at the time of conversion. I don't quite remember the numbers, but the property price more than doubled by the time he converted it. By the time he sold it, it went up in price some more.

His reasoning is that he should not pay the capital gain on the amount the property appreciated before he converted it, because the proceeds would otherwise be tax-free (due to primary residence $500k exclusion). He only pays capital gain on the amount the property appreciated after he converted it (plus depreciation recapture).

I see his point and understand that in Canada they use FMV at the time of conversion.

--> Thoughts from the REI veterans on this strategy, potential issues with IRS etc. ?

Loading replies...