Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Starting Out
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 15 years ago, 04/23/2009

User Stats

25
Posts
2
Votes
Justin Callaway
  • Lender
  • Miami, FL
2
Votes |
25
Posts

Creative Owner-Financing Question

Justin Callaway
  • Lender
  • Miami, FL
Posted

I haven't been here in a long time. Also if this is in the wrong place, please move it.

I had a thought about creative financing. With Owner-Financing, how do you think it would work with downpayments? Most require downpayments I know, but what if the property (a multi-unit) was already producing cash flow, do you think it would be possible to get them to accept the cashflow before the "loan" payments start as the down payment?

Essentially, you pay nothing down, but as part of the contract, they accept all cash flow up to whatever the downpayment is, before the payments are to start on the property, and anything that is deliquent at that time must be paid in full.

So if downpayment $10k and cashflow is $4k and the payment on the property start in 2 months, then you automatically give them that 4k in cashflow each month and that gives you 2 months to come up with the other 2k for the down payment and then you proceed with payments in accordance with the contract.

Is this done? Does this even make sense? I want you all thought. I'm looking from a college kids view of what would be great for me to get into investing (I want to start in small multi-units), with just a general example.

Loading replies...