Subject to ?

[Mark Forest]

I know the legal definition of taking a property “subject to” is that I would take over the payments of the mortgagor. I would not be liable if I could no longer make those payments.

How do the mechanics of this work? What considerations do I make as to the amount of payments made and to be made? Do I simply just start paying the bills as they come in using my checking account and the old owner is out of the picture? Please elaborate. Thanks to all for your help.