I just read through portions of the law, and it sounds like the main thing is you have to have a predetermined criteria for selecting tenants.

They will likely have a pre-determined amount of "matching" contributions and likely have a pre-determined company that holds the 401(k) plan where you will be required to invest.  

After the term, the tenant would have the right to purchase at a pre-determined price, or leave.

Set up a pre determined amount of money ..say $2.34 and perhaps one other deposit in the same dollar range say for example 1.89.

Here's how it works:Your buyer pays an option fee to purchase the home and you agree to close at a predetermined date in the future. 

Do you have to pass the exam within a pre-determined amount of time?

Private Lender covers the entire cost of the purchase including down payment, closing costs, rehab, etc... then combine all of that into one lump sum that is lent as a "mortgage"  with a predetermined interest rate.

But mainly because I was allowed to do any finishes my heart desired (within a pre determined budget).

When you dollar cost average (DCA) using the typical 401(K)/Roth IRA in which mutual funds are used as the investment vehicle, you're doing it pretty much within the pre-determined investment strategy a particular fund manager is obligated to abide by, outlined in the prospectus.

Pairing with #1 it sounds like you didn't have predetermined thresholds that would analytically tell you how to qualify a "good deal".