My current house was initially bought as a live-in-flip. However, with the market going the way it is, I thought I'd look into keeping it as a rental and refinancing it so I can buy another home. I was talking with a mortgage lender about my plan but she said that my house would need a 2 year rental history for the income of being a landlord to go on my taxable income. She said if I wanted to go about this route that I would need to make twice as much money to be able to buy another home. How are people able to BRRRR when, according to this lender, you need two years of rental history. Do I need to talk with a different lender or is my situation different being my primary residence?

Here’s some numbers on my house if it helps answer my question:

- I owe $239,000

- Current mortgage payment is $1490/month

- House appraises for $340,000+

- 90% loan to value cash out or HELOC would give me approx. $67,000

- New mortgage payment would be about $1600 because I would no longer have mortgage insurance

- average rents in my area for a 3 bedroom is $2267/month and my house will be fully remodeled