Can 1 owner force the other to sell?

[Scott Robinson]

I am working with an owner who wants to sell the house she and her deceased husband owned in Texas. Problem is her husband had 3 kids before they got married and they aren't letting her sell.  There is an existing note on the house from when the couple refinanced 15 years ago that is now in default (200 days).  The owner does not have the money to pay the note and the kids will not help pay and wont sign for her to sell.

Ive been told to sue for a partition of suit, but I'd like to find another way... if there is one.

Thanks everyone!