Looking to rap a bit with a Subto Guru. I have a few questions, etc

[Fred Borek]

Starter questions are: what kinds of things can cause the bank to invoke the due on sale clause. If the funding has been coming from one source (the original owner) and then it starts getting drawn from your account will that throw a red flag?

What if the original owner opens a second mortgage on the house to cash in on the equity. Is this possible?

Thanks in advance! I am new here