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Updated over 4 years ago,
Damage Letter & Documentation
My parents have themselves in a real hard place with their rental property (an inherited property in rural MO). The tenant was in the property for 9 years, so they are aware that most things will be their responsibility due to wear and tear. That said, there are a few things that we consider excessive that I'm uncertain how to handle:
1) The tenant busted a hole in the bottom of the bathtub and did not inform my parents of the damage when it occurred. They taped over it and continued to use it. My parents live in a rural area where there aren't many options when it comes to contractors. All of the contractors they trust were booked up until at least this month. The contractor is supposed to start on the work tomorrow, however it's almost assured that the work won't be completed by the 30 day expiration for the damage letter to be sent (they moved out on 07/15). In instances like this, can the contractor's estimate be used for the documentation, or are they just going to be out of luck for anything not done and billed before the letter is sent? An estimate for this issue probably is not going to be extremely accurate until they know exactly what the damage is underneath, so I'm really uneasy about using that, but not sure what other options there are.
2) There was wood paneling on the garage walls. The paneling has been completely destroyed by the tenant. Due to the excessive damage to the bathroom described above, my parents are considering just not replacing it, as they don't believe they are going to be able to collect on the other damages in excess of the deposit. Can they still attempt recover some portion of the cost of the damage to the wood paneling if they don't replace it or have a receipt for replacement materials?
3) There were also multiple holes in the walls, damage to the pantry, and a few other things that my dad repaired himself. My assumption is that they can only bill for the portion of the purchased materials actually used to make the repairs, even if they had to buy an excess amount in store. Is that correct? Can anything be billed for his labor in such instances?
Thanks in advance for your help and knowledge sharing!