Evicting a Paying Tenant

[Jake Kucheck]

I'm sure there's a law that can be easily referenced in the CA Civil code or some other legislation that tells me why I can't do that... but basically the question is this:

If I buy a property, distressed or otherwise, and it has a tenant in it that can provide a valid lease at market rate, I am under the impression that I have to honor that lease regardless of its terms or duration. Is this a correct understanding, and if so why? If not, why not?