Question about Sub2's agreement

[Jon Quigley]

Hello. I've been doing a ton of study on Sub2's recently and have a question.

Does a Sub2 include a written agreement that if I the investor were to not make payments on the original loan, then the seller has the right to foreclose on the investor? Is this a common agreement that gets put in place on a Sub2? If so, then I don't see why the references to FBI/AG and such would be a risk because that agreement would clearly show it's all on the up & up. In the various sources of info, the words "investor promises to make the payments to the seller" - do they mean verbally due to the mutual interest in keeping the financials healthy, or is this promise a written agreement? Thanks in advance.