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Question About Homeowner's Loans
Hey guys! Random question about homeowner's loans that just crossed my mind. So I've seen conventional loans for first-time home buyers with DP's as low as 3%. If someone were to get one of these loans, would they be able to utilize an FHA loan a year later on another property since the first loan was not backed by the FHA? Or would they be ineligible since they are no longer a first-time home buyer. And vice versa. Thanks!