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Updated 4 months ago on . Most recent reply
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Can a lender file a lien after default if the contract did identify the property?
My understanding is that most lenders will file a mortgage lien on the subject property as soon as the loan is signed so as to preserve their rights, but what if the lender did not do so before the borrower defaulted? Can the lender still file the lien after-the-fact as long as the promissory note clearly indicated that the intent was for the subject property to be collateral?