Skip to content
×
Try PRO Free Today!
BiggerPockets Pro offers you a comprehensive suite of tools and resources
Market and Deal Finder Tools
Deal Analysis Calculators
Property Management Software
Exclusive discounts to Home Depot, RentRedi, and more
$0
7 days free
$828/yr or $69/mo when billed monthly.
$390/yr or $32.5/mo when billed annually.
7 days free. Cancel anytime.
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Starting Out
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 15 years ago on . Most recent reply

User Stats

45
Posts
39
Votes
Suzanna Lam
  • Real Estate Professional
  • San Jose, CA
39
Votes |
45
Posts

Pre-foreclosure

Suzanna Lam
  • Real Estate Professional
  • San Jose, CA
Posted

Hello all,

I thought I'm gonna jump in and do my first pre-foreclosure just to test the water. I have access to a database that has all the pre-foreclosure. I read all the information contained in one pre-foreclosed information and became very confused. Could anyone help me understand:

1. Even though the NOD went out to the homeowner in May 2009. The default date indicated 6/2006 was the date of default. He bought the house in 5/2005 as indicated by the transfer date. How is this possible? I thought if you're behind in your mortgage by 6 months you're gonna get a NOD by the 7th month or something like that. In this case the homeowner, it appears, stopped making payment since 2006 and he's getting a NOD in 2009?

2. The same homeowner bought his house for $587K but is default for $544K. Zillow's estimated value is $342K. These numbers seem to indicate that this property is not a prime candidate for a pre-foreclosed deal due to zero equity in the house. Is my analysis correct? My question is how would know if a property is a good candidate for pre-foreclosure deal? Should the default amount at least 50% of the FMV as estimated by Zillows or comps?

Many thanks.

Most Popular Reply

User Stats

410
Posts
292
Votes
John Fedro
  • Investor
  • Austin, TX
292
Votes |
410
Posts
John Fedro
  • Investor
  • Austin, TX
Replied

Suzanna, I have heard stories such as this for a while. There are ways to delay a lis pendens. The stories I have heard involved filing and refiling a bankruptcy, however with the new bankruptcy laws this is harder. Back in 04 I passed on investing in a home where the homeowner had not made a payment in 19 months, and recieved not one late fee or notice from the bank. (She simply slipped throught the system.) So yes it does happen... esspecially in todays market. Finance and service companies are months behind with all the foreclosures recently.

It does not sould like this is a deal. If you can find at home with an LTV of 40-60% a real "FMV", including closing, holding, and repairs cost, then tie it up with a contract!! But most of these homes will be gobbled up by other investors. And typically if a homeowner is anywhere close to 50% loan to value they would probably chose to refi before deal with an investor.

If you have a funnel set up to work short sales, put it in your pipe line. but I belive most people here would say "Next!"

And listen to Jon, dont trust zillow.

-John F

Loading replies...