An oral lease is almost always going to be interpretted by the courts to favor a tenant from my experience.  

I am curious how the property came to be in such disrepair... you mention a "new" property manager, which I interpret as meaning you replaced the prior one, or did you not have one before and just now got a new one?  

Shaun Dewitt , I would say that a loose interpretation of contract law, DTPA, and the like could definitely make it illegal to enter into a contract that you knowingly can't perform on.It's one thing to say I'm going to try and wholesale this but if not I'll buy it and go from there, and another to go around putting a bunch houses under contract and then never closing on any of them; because you can't find a buyer.Unless the seller understands way up front that you're going to terminate if you can't find another buyer, and you have them sign off as such, it's perfectly reasonable that a group of people (sellers) could get together and ask the attorney general of a state to investigate fraud.

Different judges in different areas will have their own interpretation of what reasonable is if you ever end up before them.

We're interpreted as arrogant, confused, stupid, unrelatable, etc.

I'm still learning how to properly read and interpret the county property records, so excuse me if this is a silly question.I found the home on Zillow and it says the home was foreclosed to the lender on 5/14/14.

You can interpret their verbiage however you may, but my 2 cents is you need to "occupy, establish and use" the property ASAP as per the document.

In CT - it is 9 or 10 days (depending on interpretation... best to wait the 10), and charging any late fee prior to this timeframe will get you in hot water.

It supersedes the 11th circuit interpretation that liens can be stripped in chapter 7. 

But now I'm interpreting this as an opportunity to get creative.