Disregarding the 1% rule?

[Tyler D.]

I'm looking at property in the state of Oregon, which has had amazing appreciation but poor (starting) cashflow. Basically the only properties I have found that break 1% are in rural areas, or dumps, or both.

I'm looking specifically at fourplexes to owner-occupy, and at best I've found something that hit 0.8% so far, but most hover between 0.6-0.7%. I'm wondering if it would be a poor investment to disregard the 1% rule in this case? I'd like to start accumulating properties in my area (by owner occupying, then moving out a year later), but only if it makes sense financially.

Basically, I want to know if:

1) Is it sound strategy to ignore the 1% rule in areas with high appreciation, and

2) Is it alright to ignore the 1% rule for fourplexes? (1 roof, lower costs, etc).